Activity of venetoclax in patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia: analysis of the VENICE-1 multicentre, open-label, single-arm, phase 3b trial.

BACKGROUND: Most patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia progress after treatment or retreatment with targeted therapy or chemoimmunotherapy and have limited subsequent treatment options. Response levels to the single-agent venetoclax in the relapsed setting is unknown. We aimed to assess venetoclax activity in patients with or without previous B-cell receptor-associated kinase inhibitor (BCRi) treatment. METHODS: This multicentre, open-label, single-arm, phase 3b trial (VENICE-1) assessed activity and safety of venetoclax monotherapy in adults with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, stratified by previous exposure to a BCRi. Eligible participants were aged 18 years or older with previously treated relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. Presence of del(17p) or TP53 aberrations and previous BCRi treatment were permitted. Patients received 5-week ramp-up to 400 mg of oral venetoclax once daily and were treated for up to 108 weeks, with 2 years follow-up after discontinuation, or optional extended access. The primary activity endpoint was complete remission rate (complete remission or complete remission with incomplete marrow recovery) in BCRi-naive patients. Analyses used the intent-to-treat (ie, all enrolled patients, which coincided with those who received at least one dose of venetoclax). This study was registered with ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT02756611, and is complete. FINDINGS: Between June 22, 2016, and March 11, 2022, we enrolled 258 patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (180 [70%] were male; 252 [98%] were White; 191 were BCRi-naive and 67 were BCRi-pretreated). Median follow-up in the overall cohort was 49·5 months (IQR 47·2-54·1), 49·2 months (47·2-53·2) in the BCRi-naive group, and 49·7 months (47·4-54·3) in the BCRi-pretreated group. Of 191 BCRi-naive patients, 66 (35%; 95% CI 27·8-41·8) had complete remission or complete remission with incomplete marrow recovery. 18 (27%; 95% CI 16·8-39·1) of 67 patients in the BCRi-pretreated group had complete remission or complete remission with incomplete marrow recovery. Grade 3 or worse treatment-emergent adverse events were reported in 203 (79%) and serious adverse events were reported in 136 (53%) of 258 patients in the overall cohort. The most common treatment-emergent adverse event was neutropenia (96 [37%]) and the most common and serious adverse event was pneumonia (21 [8%]). There were 13 (5%) deaths reported due to adverse events; one of these deaths (autoimmune haemolytic anaemia) was possibly related to venetoclax. No new safety signals were identified. INTERPRETATION: These data demonstrate deep and durable responses with venetoclax monotherapy in patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, including BCRi-pretreated patients, suggesting that venetoclax monotherapy is an effective strategy for treating BCRi-naive and BCRi-pretreated patients. FUNDING: AbbVie.

Fixed-duration venetoclax plus obinutuzumab improves quality of life and geriatric impairments in FCR-unfit patients with CLL.

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)-related symptoms and morbidity related to the advanced age at diagnosis impairs the well-being of older adult patients. Therefore, it is essential to tailor treatment according to geriatric characteristics and aim for an improvement in health-related quality of life (HRQoL) as a primary treatment goal. In the HOVON139/GiVe trial, 12 cycles of fixed-duration venetoclax plus obinutuzumab (Ven-O) were shown to be effective and tolerable in FCR (fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, rituximab)-unfit patients with CLL (n = 67). However, prolonged venetoclax exposure as consolidation treatment led to increased toxicity with limited effect on minimal residual disease. To assess the impact of geriatric assessment on treatment outcomes and the patients' HRQoL, patient-reported outcomes (PROs), including function, depression, cognition, nutrition, physical performance, muscle parameters, comorbidities, and the European Organization for Research and Treatment of Cancer C30 and CLL17 questionnaires were assessed. At baseline, geriatric impairments were present in >90% of patients and ≥2 impairments present in 60% of patients predicted grade ≥3 nonhematological toxicity. During treatment, the number of geriatric impairments diminished significantly and clinically relevant improvements in HRQoL subscales were reached for global health status, physical functioning, role functioning, emotional functioning, fatigue, dyspnea, physical condition or fatigue, and worries or fears related to health and functioning. These improvements were comparable for patients receiving venetoclax consolidation and patients in whom treatment could mostly be discontinued. Collectively, frontline fixed-duration Ven-O improves overall PROs in older, unfit patients with CLL with and without geriatric impairments. This study was registered at EudraCT as 2015-004985-27 and the Netherlands Trial Register as NTR6043.

Minimal residual disease-guided stop and start of venetoclax plus ibrutinib for patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (HOVON141/VISION): primary analysis of an open-label, randomised, phase 2 trial.

BACKGROUND: Targeted time-limited treatment options are needed for patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. The aim of this study was to investigate the efficacy of minimal residual disease (MRD)-guided, time-limited ibrutinib plus venetoclax treatment in this patient group. METHODS: HOVON141/VISION was an open-label, randomised, phase 2 trial conducted in 47 hospitals in Belgium, Denmark, Finland, the Netherlands, Norway, and Sweden. Eligible participants were aged 18 years or older with previously treated chronic lymphocytic leukaemia with or without TP53 aberrations; had not been exposed to Bruton tyrosine-kinase inhibitors or BCL2 inhibitors; had a creatinine clearance rate of 30 mL/min or more; and required treatment according to International Workshop on Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia 2018 criteria. Participants with undetectable MRD (<10-4; less than one chronic lymphocytic leukaemia cell per 10 000 leukocytes) in peripheral blood and bone marrow after 15 28-day cycles of oral ibrutinib (420 mg once daily) plus oral venetoclax (weekly ramp-up 20 mg, 50 mg, 100 mg, 200 mg, up to 400 mg once daily) were randomly assigned (1:2) to ibrutinib maintenance or treatment cessation. Patients who were MRD positive continued to receive ibrutinib monotherapy. Patients who became MRD (>10-2) during observation reinitiated treatment with ibrutinib plus venetoclax. The primary endpoint was progression-free survival at 12 months after random assignment in the treatment cessation group. Progression-free survival was analysed in the intention-to-treat population. All patients who received at least one dose of study drug were included in the safety assessment. The study is registered at ClinicalTrials.gov, NCT03226301, and is active but not recruiting. FINDINGS: Between July 12, 2017, and Jan 21, 2019, 230 patients were enrolled, 225 of whom were eligible. 188 (84%) of 225 completed treatment with ibrutinib plus venetoclax and were tested for MRD at cycle 15. After cycle 15, 78 (35%) patients had undetectable MRD and 72 (32%) were randomly assigned to a treatment group (24 to ibrutinib maintenance and 48 to treatment cessation). The remaining 153 patients were not randomly assigned and continued with ibrutinib monotherapy. Median follow-up of 208 patients still alive and not lost to follow-up at data cutoff on June 22, 2021, was 34·4 months (IQR 30·6-37·9). Progression-free survival after 12 months in the treatment cessation group was 98% (95% CI 89-100). Infections (in 130 [58%] of 225 patients), neutropenia (in 91 [40%] patients), and gastrointestinal adverse events (in 53 [24%] patients) were the most frequently reported; no new safety signals were detected. Serious adverse events were reported in 46 (40%) of 116 patients who were not randomly assigned and who continued ibrutinib maintenance after cycle 15, eight (33%) of 24 patients in the ibrutinib maintenance group, and four (8%) of 48 patients in the treatment cessation group. One patient who was not randomly assigned had a fatal adverse event (bleeding) deemed possibly related to ibrutinib. INTERPRETATION: These data point to a favourable benefit-risk profile of MRD-guided, time-limited treatment with ibrutinib plus venetoclax for patients with relapsed or refractory chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, suggesting that MRD-guided cessation and reinitiation is feasible in this patient population. FUNDING: AbbVie and Janssen.

Venetoclax consolidation after fixed-duration venetoclax plus obinutuzumab for previously untreated chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (HOVON 139/GiVe): primary endpoint analysis of a multicentre, open-label, randomised, parallel-group, phase 2 trial.

BACKGROUND: Fixed-duration 12 cycles of venetoclax plus obinutuzumab is established as first-line treatment for patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia. We aimed to determine the activity and safety of 12 cycles of venetoclax consolidation after fixed-duration venetoclax plus obinutuzumab for previously untreated patients with chronic lymphocytic leukaemia who were unfit for fludarabine-based treatment, and whether this could be guided by minimal residual disease status. METHODS: We conducted an open-label, randomised, parallel-group, phase 2 trial (HOVON 139/GiVe) at 25 hospitals in the Netherlands. Eligible patients were aged 18 years or older with previously untreated chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, had an ECOG performance status of 0-2, and were unfit for fludarabine-based treatment. All patients received two debulking cycles of intravenous obinutuzumab (100 mg on day 1, 900 mg on day 2, and 1000 mg on days 8, 15, and day 1 of cycle two), followed by fixed-duration venetoclax plus obinutuzumab for 12 cycles (six cycles of intravenous obinutuzumab 1000 mg on day 1 and 12 during 28-day cycles of oral venetoclax, starting with a 5-week ramp-up and then 400 mg once daily until completion of cycle 12). Patients were then randomly assigned (1:1) by minimal residual disease status in peripheral blood, to receive either 12 cycles of venetoclax consolidation irrespective of minimal residual disease or venetoclax consolidation only if minimal residual disease was detected at randomisation. The primary endpoint was undetectable minimal residual disease in bone marrow and no progressive disease 3 months after end of consolidation treatment (or corresponding timepoint) by intention-to-treat. Safety was assessed in all patients who received at least one dose of any study drug. This is the primary endpoint analysis of this trial, which is ongoing and is registered with EudraCT (2015-004985-27). FINDINGS: Between Oct 28, 2016, and May 31, 2018, 70 patients were enrolled, of whom 67 (47 [70%] men and 20 [30%] women) received fixed-duration treatment and 62 were randomly assigned to receive 12 cycles of venetoclax consolidation (n=32) or minimal residual disease-guided venetoclax consolidation (n=30; one of whom was minimal residual disease positive at randomisation). Median follow-up was 35·2 months (IQR 31·5-41·3). 16 (50% [95% CI 32-68]) of 32 patients in the consolidation group and 16 (53% [34-72]) of 30 in the minimal residual disease-guided consolidation group met the primary endpoint of undetectable minimal residual disease in bone marrow and no progressive disease. 22 (69%) of 32 patients in the venetoclax consolidation group and 11 (37%) of 30 in the minimal residual disease-guided consolidation group had any adverse event (grade 2-4; mainly infections). The most common grade 3 or worse adverse events were infection (two [6%] of 32 patients in the consolidation group and one [3%] of 30 in the minimal residual disease-guided consolidation group) and neutropenia (two [6%] and two [7%]). There were no treatment-related deaths. INTERPRETATION: Consolidation with venetoclax 12-cycle treatment increases the duration of known side-effects and does not prevent the loss of minimal residual disease response and subsequent risk of disease relapse. FUNDING: F Hoffmann-La Roche.

PRRT2-related phenotypes in patients with a 16p11.2 deletion.

We studied the presence of benign infantile epilepsy (BIE), paroxysmal kinesigenic dyskinesia (PKD), and PKD with infantile convulsions (PKD/IC) in patients with a 16p11.2 deletion including PRRT2 or with a PRRT2 loss-of-function sequence variant. Index patients were recruited from seven Dutch university hospitals. The presence of BIE, PKD and PKD/IC was retrospectively evaluated using questionnaires and medical records. We included 33 patients with a 16p11.2 deletion: three (9%) had BIE, none had PKD or PKD/IC. Twelve patients had a PRRT2 sequence variant: BIE was present in four (p = 0.069), PKD in six (p < 0.001) and PKD/IC in two (p = 0.067). Most patients with a deletion had undergone genetic testing because of developmental problems (87%), whereas all patients with a sequence variant were tested because of a movement disorder (55%) or epilepsy (45%). BIE, PKD and PKD/IC clearly showed incomplete penetrance in patients with 16p11.2 deletions, but were found in all and 95% of patients with a PRRT2 sequence variant in our study and a large literature cohort, respectively. Deletions and sequence variants have the same underlying loss-of-function disease mechanism. Thus, differences in ascertainment have led to overestimating the frequency of BIE, PKD and PKD/IC in patients with a PRRT2 sequence variant. This has important implications for counseling if genome-wide sequencing shows such variants in patients not presenting the PRRT2-related phenotypes.

The idiopathic preterm delivery methylation profile in umbilical cord blood DNA.

BACKGROUND: Preterm delivery is the leading cause of neonatal morbidity and mortality. Two-thirds of preterm deliveries are idiopathic. The initiating molecular mechanisms behind spontaneous preterm delivery are unclear. Umbilical cord blood DNA samples are an easy source of material to study the neonatal state at birth. DNA methylation changes can be exploited as markers to identify spontaneous preterm delivery. To identify methylation differences specific to idiopathic preterm delivery, we assessed genome-wide DNA methylation changes in 24 umbilical cord blood samples (UCB) using the 450 K Illumina methylation array. After quality control, conclusions were based on 11 term and 11 idiopathic preterm born neonates. The differentially methylated positions (DMPs) specific for preterm/term delivery, neonatal sex, use of oxytocin and mode of initiation of labor were calculated by controlling the FDR p value at 0.05. RESULTS: The analysis identifies 1855 statistically significant DMPs between preterm and term deliveries of which 508 DMPs are also attributable to clinical variables other than preterm versus term delivery. 1347 DMPs are unique to term vs preterm delivery, of which 196 DMPs do not relate to gestational age as such. Pathway analysis indicated enrichment of genes involved in calcium signalling, myometrial contraction and relaxation pathways. The 1151 DMPs that correlate with advancing gestational age (p < 0.05) include 161 DMPs that match with two previously reported studies on UCB methylation. Additionally, 123 neonatal sex specific DMPs, 97 DMPs specific to the induction of labour and 42 DMPs specific to the mode of initiation of labor were also identified. CONCLUSION: This study identifies 196 DMPs in UCB DNA of neonates which do not relate to gestational age or any other clinical variable recorded and are specific to idiopathic preterm delivery. Furthermore, 161 DMPs from our study overlap with previously reported studies of which a subset is also reported to be differentially methylated at 18 years of age. A DMP on MYL4, encoding myosin light chain 4, is a robust candidate for the identification of idiopathic preterm labour as it is identified by all 3 independent studies.

The importance of chromosome studies in Roberts syndrome/SC phocomelia and other cohesinopathies.

Roberts syndrome/SC phocomelia is a rare, autosomal recessive syndrome characterised by pre- and postnatal growth retardation, microcephaly, craniofacial anomalies, mental retardation, and tetraphocomelia in varying degrees of severity. The clinical diagnosis can be challenging in phenotypically mild cases. In the extremely mild case presented here, specific mitotic abnormalities were detected and proved to be very helpful, since Roberts syndrome/SC phocomelia could be diagnosed after finding premature centromere separation and somatic aneuploidy at routine karyotyping. We discuss these and other mitotic cytogenetic abnormalities that can be of significant diagnostic importance, but which will be missed if only array studies are performed. We also discuss the difference between premature centromere separation and premature (sister) chromatid separation.

Gonadoblastoma arising in undifferentiated gonadal tissue within dysgenetic gonads.

PURPOSE: The purpose of the study was to define the histological origin of gonadoblastomas, allowing the identification of high-risk patients. EXPERIMENTAL DESIGN: Sixty paraffin-embedded gonadectomy or gonadal biopsy samples of 43 patients with gonadal dysgenesis were selected from our archives. We studied the morphology and immunohistochemical properties of the germ cells in 40 samples without neoplastic transformation and compared these findings with the morphological and immunohistochemical characteristics of 20 samples containing gonadoblastoma/dysgerminoma. RESULTS: The overall incidence of germ cell tumors in our patient series was 35%. In dysgenetic gonads without germ cell neoplasia, besides the presence of areas with testicular and/or ovarian differentiation, areas of undifferentiated gonadal tissue were identified in 13 of 40 samples (32.5%). A subpopulation of germ cells within these undifferentiated areas stained positive for octamer binding transcription factor (OCT)3/4, the stem cell factor receptor, placental-like alkaline phosphatase, and testis-specific protein-Y encoded. Gonadoblastoma germ cells display identical staining results. Moreover, in gonads containing gonadoblastoma, adjacent to this lesion, areas of undifferentiated gonadal tissue with identical immunohistochemical characteristics were identified in 10 of 20 samples (50%). No adjacent tissue was available in five cases, whereas in the five remaining cases, it consisted of streak tissue. In three cases, an accumulation of OCT3/4-positive germ cells in the proximity of the malignant lesions was found, suggesting clonal expansion and final organization into gonadoblastoma nests. CONCLUSIONS: Based on these observations, we hypothesize that gonadoblastomas originate from surviving OCT3/4-positive germ cells in areas of undifferentiated gonadal tissue within the dysgenetic gonad. Supportive evidence was obtained that carcinoma in situ arises in regions with testicular differentiation.

Identification of germ cells at risk for neoplastic transformation in gonadoblastoma: an immunohistochemical study for OCT3/4 and TSPY.

Carcinoma in situ (CIS) is the precursor of malignant testicular germ cell tumors (GCTs) of adolescents and young adults, being the neoplastic counterpart of primordial germ cells/gonocytes. Carcinoma in situ cells will develop into invasive seminoma/nonseminoma. Gonadoblastoma (GB) is the precursor of invasive GCTs in dysgenetic gonads, predominantly dysgerminoma (DG). In this process, part of the Y chromosome (GBY region) is involved, for which TSPY is a candidate gene. A detailed immunohistochemical survey was performed for the known diagnostic markers, germ cell/placental alkaline phosphatase (PLAP), c-KIT, and OCT3/4, as well as testis-specific protein on the Y chromosome (TSPY) on a series of GBs, and adjacent invasive DGs. All 5 patients were XY individuals (4 females and 1 male). In contrast to c-KIT, PLAP was positive in all cases. The immature germ cells of GBs were positive for OCT3/4, whereas the mature germ cells were negative for this marker, but positive for TSPY. In every GB, a minor population of germ cells positive for both markers could be identified, similar to most CIS cells and early invasive DG. On progression to an invasive tumor, TSPY can be lost, a process that is also detectable in invasive testicular GCTs compared to CIS. These results indicate that GB is a heterogeneous mix of germ cells, in which the OCT3/4-positive cells have the potential to undergo progression to an invasive tumor. These early invasive stages are initially also positive for TSPY (like CIS), supporting a positive selection mechanism. Therefore, OCT3/4 in combination with TSPY is valuable to identify malignant germ cells in dysgenetic gonads. This could allow better prediction of the risk of progression to a GCT. In addition, the data support the model that GB represents the earliest accessible developmental stage of malignant GCTs.

Involvement of E-cadherin and beta-catenin in germ cell tumours and in normal male fetal germ cell development.

Intercellular contacts, mediated by E-cadherin, are essential for germ cell migration and maturation. Furthermore, it has been suggested that decrease or loss of E-cadherin correlates with tumour progression and invasive behaviour. beta-catenin is involved in a number of different processes, including cell--cell interaction when bound to cadherins, and determination of cell fate in pluripotent cells when activated via the Wnt signal-transduction pathway. To shed more light on the role of these factors in normal fetal germ cell development and the pathogenesis of germ cell tumours (GCTs), the present study investigated the presence and localization of E-cadherin and beta-catenin by immunohistochemistry. E-cadherin was only weakly expressed in or absent from fetal germ cells of the second and third trimesters, and was not expressed in carcinoma in situ/intratubular germ cell neoplasia unclassified (CIS/ITGCNU) and gonadoblastoma, the precursor of an invasive GCT in dysgenetic gonads. In GCTs, it was generally not expressed in seminoma and dysgerminoma, but was found in the vast majority of non-seminoma cells. beta-catenin was found in the cytoplasm of fetal germ cells at all gestational ages and in spermatogenesis in post-pubertal testes. It was also present in CIS/ITGCNU and gonadoblastoma. Whereas seminomas and dysgerminoma were negative, non-seminoma cells were frequently found to express beta-catenin. Expression of both factors therefore reflects the degree of differentiation of these tumours. No differences for either E-cadherin or beta-catenin were observed between samples of tumours resistant or sensitive to chemotherapy, and E-cadherin expression did not correlate with vascular invasion. E-cadherin and beta-catenin therefore play a role in both normal and malignant germ cell development and differentiation that warrants further investigation, but they seem to be of limited value as predictive or prognostic factors in GCTs.

Involvement of the Fas/FasL pathway in the pathogenesis of germ cell tumours of the adult testis.

Induction of apoptosis by Fas ligand (FasL) of Fas-containing cells is a known mechanism involved in the eradication of inappropriate cells during normal development. Alterations of the Fas/FasL pathway have been found in various types of cancer, leading to circumvention of attack of the tumour by the immune system. An alternative way to circumvent eradication by induction of apoptosis is through changes in the downstream inhibitors. For example, Fas-associating phosphatase-1 (Fap-1) binds directly to the Fas receptor and results in a block of the downstream signalling. To shed more light on the role of the Fas/FasL pathway in the development of human testicular germ cell tumours of the adult testis, this study investigated the presence of Fas, FasL, Fap-1, HLA class I and II molecules, CD45 (lymphocyte marker), and CD57 [natural killer (NK) cell marker] by immunohistochemistry on frozen sections of 41 cases of seminomas, non-seminomas, and spermatocytic seminomas. Every germ cell tumour was positive for Fap-1 and negative for HLA classes I and II, like their non-malignant cells of origin. The infiltrating lymphocytes, predominantly present in seminomas, showed consistently positive staining for Fas and CD45, but not for Fap-1. No Fas was found on NK cells. All seminomas and non-seminomas (except teratomas), including their precursor stages, carcinoma in situ, intratubular seminoma and intratubular non-seminoma, showed positive staining for FasL, but not for Fas. Teratoma showed no staining for FasL and was positive for Fas. In contrast, both Fas and FasL were detectable on spermatocytic seminoma. These data indicate a different regulation of the Fas/FasL system in seminoma and spermatocytic seminoma, supporting a separate pathogenesis for these germ cell-derived tumours. The presence of Fap-1 in all histological variants of germ cell tumours might be related to the consistently positive staining in cells of the germ lineage. This study indicates that production of FasL by the germ cell tumour cells might be involved in the early development of these types of adult testicular cancer by inducting apoptosis of Fas-positive, Fap-1-negative tumour-infiltrating lymphocytes.

Role of P53 and MDM2 in treatment response of human germ cell tumors.

PURPOSE: Testicular germ cell tumors (TGCTs) of adolescents and adults are very sensitive to systemic treatment. The exquisite chemosensitivity of these cancers has been attributed to a high level of wild-type P53. MATERIALS AND METHODS: To clarify the role of P53 in treatment sensitivity and resistance of TGCTs, we performed immunohistochemistry and Western blotting analysis on a series of 39 fresh-frozen primary TGCTs before therapy (unselected series). In a series of formalin-fixed paraffin-embedded TGCTs of patients with fully documented clinical course, including treatment-sensitive (n = 17) and -resistant (n = 18) tumors, P53 status was assessed by immunohistochemistry and mutation analysis. In addition, the involvement of MDM2, a P53 antagonist, was investigated by immunohistochemistry, reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction, and in situ hybridization. RESULTS: Immunohistochemistry demonstrated absence of staining for P53 in 36%, 41%, and 17% of the unselected, responding, and nonresponding TGCTs, respectively. Of the positive TGCTs, most tumors, ie, 49%, 41%, and 33%, showed 1% to 10% positive nuclei. This overall low level of P53 was confirmed by Western blotting. Mutation analysis revealed only one silent P53 mutation in one of the responding patients. All embryonal carcinomas were homogeneously positive for MDM2, encoded by the full length mRNA, while a heterogeneous pattern was found for the other histologic components. Amplification of MDM2 was detected in one out of 12 embryonal carcinomas. CONCLUSION: Although our results are in line with previous findings of the presence of wild-type P53 in TGCTs, they show that a high level of P53 does not relate directly to treatment sensitivity of these tumors, and inactivation of P53 is not a common event in the development of cisplatin resistance.